Answers Prophecies of the Messiah in the Hebrew Bible In Psalm 2:12, is Kiss the Son a mistranslation by the Christians?

In Psalm 2:12, is Kiss the Son a mistranslation by the Christians?

Some claim that translating the word bar" (in Psalm 2:12) as "son" rather than as "purity" is a distortion of the Hebrew text in order to make the verse apply to Jesus. It is also claimed that this is not a Jewish interpretation of the verse. And finally, it is said that the word "bar" means "son" only in Aramaic, whereas this psalm is in Hebrew.

Yet some important Jewish sources translate "bar" as "son." The translation can be supported by linguistic arguments. Therefore there is no basis for claiming that this rendering is a "Christian mistranslation." Some of these sources are as follows:

The interpretation of Ibn Ezra (12th c.):

Ibn Ezra rejects the simple and acceptable meaning of 'bar' as pure and inclines to translate it as son, referring it to the "anointed one" in v. 2 and making it the apposite of "Thou art my son" in v. 7. Bar would then allude to Israel.

J. Sarachek, The Doctrine of the Messiah in Medieval Jewish Literature (New York: Hermon Press, 1968), p. 121.

The interpretation of David Kimchi (13th c.), observing the validity of "son" as well as "pure":

Qimchi observes that bar may either be the same as the common Hebrew ben, as in Prov. xxxi.2, or may mean "pure," as in the phrase "pure of heart." "If," he says, "we adopt the reading son, then the sense will be, 'kiss the son whom God hath called a son,' saying, 'Thou art my son;' and the verb must be explained by the custom of slaves kissing the hand of their masters. But if we adopt the reading pure, it means, 'What have I to do with you? for I am pure of heart, and there is no iniquity in me that you should come and fight against me; but it is your part to kiss me and to confess that I am king by the ordinance of God.'

cited in J. J. Stewart Perowne, The Book of Psalms: A New Translation with Introductions and Notes Explanatory and Critical (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1975), pp. 119-20.

The Isaac Leeser translation of the Hebrew Bible (19th c.):

Do homage to the son.

Isaac Leeser, Twenty-Four Books of the Holy Scriptures Carefully Translated After the Best Jewish Authorities (New York: Hebrew Publishing Company). Leeser's translation was the standard American Jewish translation from 1845 until the Jewish Publication Society translation of 1917.

Willem A. VanGemeren, Professor of Old Testament and Chairman, Dept. of O.T. Studies, Reformed Theological Seminary:

In favor of the traditional translation are the context of the psalm (submission to the Lord and to the anointed), the proposal by Delitzsch that the sequence bar pen ("Son, lest") avoids the dissonance of ben pen (KD, 1:98), and the suggestion by Craigie that the usage of the Aramaism may be intentionally directed to the foreign nations (Psalms 1-50, p. 64).

In The Expositor's Bible Commentary, ed. Frank E. Gaebelein, vol. 5 (Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1991), p. 72.

Jews for Jesus

Comments  

 
0 #7 Hughie 2010-03-31 10:41
In the future all the nations (races ) will come and bow and kiss the Son.
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0 #6 Mordechai 2008-01-05 15:31
I'm still not sure why you think "purity" is an incorrect translation of "bar". Never mind that "son" is mentioned in verse 7; how about David HaMelech himself using "bar" as meaning "purity" in Psalms 24:4? Purity also makes most sense in context here: "Serve HaShem with awe...Yearn for purity, lest HE grow wrathful."
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0 #5 David 2006-06-27 14:33
Isn't it odd how all the "proofs" used to show that the word means "son" are 20th century translators of the bible? I guess before the last century there are no commentators who believed that it means son aside from King James. Ibn Ezra doesn't mention Son in his commentary either rather J. Sarachek interprets that. inclines to translate it as son, referring it to the "anointed one".
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0 #4 Mordechai 2006-01-26 10:42
If Ibn Ezra is correct, the son is Israel. David Kimchi says that with this verse, G-D is telling us to kiss that who was called a son; also Israel. Or King David. Isaac Leeser renders it "do homage", which is the only place I've ever seen that translation, so I'm not for or against supporting it. I reluctantly include Prof. VanGemeren's take on the matter, except to say it fits better with Mr. Leeser's tranlsation. If it actually is "kiss the son", then we have another question on our hands; Am I to actually kiss the subject in question? What if it's Israel: I should kiss everybody? What if it's Jesus: He's dead, so how can I? So it doesn't seem to point exclusively to Jesus, and kiss the son doesn't seem to make sense nowadays.
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0 #3 Rich 2006-01-16 01:06
You still have the various commentators on this page who think "son" is the way to go in translating. Actually, Mordechai, it's according to *you* that we should all kiss Adam. But then again, if you want to quote the New Testament which you don't believe in, it calls Jesus the "last Adam" so he gets the last kiss.
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0 #2 Mordechai 2006-01-15 11:21
"Kiss the son" you want to say? keeping the obvious mistranslation issue aside, if we were to say it means "kiss the son", answer this: Luke 3:38 says Adam is the son of G-D. "The son of G-D". According to you, we should all kiss Adam, not Jesus.
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0 #1 Mordechai 2006-01-01 04:32
It's really quite simple: "bar" in Hebrew means "pure"; in Aramiac, "son of", as in "Rami bar Abba". If it meant "son" in Hebrew, then there would be a technical problem. "Kiss the son, lest He grow wrathful..."? Who's the son? After all, Ps. 89 says King David will call G-D "My Father" and it refers to David as G-D's anointed one (v. 20), and Deut 14:1 says "You are children to HaShem, your G-D".
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