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Answers Prophecies of the Messiah in the Hebrew Bible Jewish Messianic Interpretations of Isaiah 53

Jewish Messianic Interpretations of Isaiah 53

Bonheur futur de Jérusalem ayant retrouvé grâce devant Dieu (Isaïe, LXII, 1 5) by Marc Chagall

It's commonly maintained that Isaiah 53 was never considered messianic by rabbis and Jewish sages. Sometimes the statement is phrased as, "Judaism teaches" that Isaiah 53 refers to the nation of Israel.

The fact is that Isaiah 53 (more precisely, 52:13 to 53:12) has been interpreted in messianic terms by a wide variety of Jewish commentators over a long period of time. Other interpretations have certainly been offered, including the view first popularized by Rashi in medieval times that the prophet speaks of the nation of Israel. Neverthless the messianic interpretation has a long history in Jewish Bible exegesis, as shown by the quotations below.

The Targum

Behold, My Servant the Messiah shall prosper.

Targum ("Targum Jonathan") to Isaiah 52:13, various editions (such as Samson H. Levey, The Messiah: An Aramaic Interpretation; the Messianic Exegesis of the Targum." Cincinnati: Hebrew Union College, 1974, p. 63).

In the early cycle of synagogue readings

We know that messianic homilies based on Joseph's career (his saving role preceded by suffering), and using Isaiah 53 as the prophetic portion, were preached in certain old synagogues which used the triennial cycle...

Rav Asher Soloff, "The Fifty Third Chapter of Isaiah According to the Jewish Commentators, to the Sixteenth Century" (Ph.D. Thesis, Drew University,1967), p. 146.

The addition of 53.4-5 [to the cycle of synagogue readings] was evidently of a Messianic purport by reason of the theory of a suffering Messiah. The earlier part of [the Haftarah] (52.7ff.) dealt with the redemption of Israel, and in this connection the tribulations of the Messiah were briefly alluded to by the recital of the above 2 verses.

Jacob Mann, The Bible as Read and Preached in the Old Synagogue (NY: Ktav, 1971, © 1940), p. 298.

Babylonian Talmud, Sanhedrin 98b

The Rabbis said: His name is "the leper scholar," as it is written, Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him a leper, smitten of God, and afflicted. [Isaiah 53:4].

Soncino Talmud edition.

Ruth Rabbah 5:6

The fifth interpretation [of Ruth 2:14] makes it refer to the Messiah. Come hither: approach to royal state. And eat of the BREAD refers to the bread of royalty; AND DIP THY MORSEL IN THE VINEGAR refers to his sufferings, as it is said, But he was wounded because of our transgressions. (Isa. LIII, 5).

Soncino Midrash Rabbah (vol. 8, p. 64).

The Karaite Yefeth ben Ali (10th c.)

As to myself, I am inclined, with Benjamin of Nehawend, to regard it as alluding to the Messiah, and as opening with a description of his condition in exile, from the time of his birth to his accession to the throne: for the prophet begins by speaking of his being seated in a position of great honour, and then goes back to relate all that will happen to him during the captivity. He thus gives us to understand two things: In the first instance, that the Messiah will only reach his highest degree of honour after long and severe trials; and secondly, that these trials will be sent upon him as a kind of sign, so that, if he finds himself under the yoke of misfortunes whilst remaining pure in his actions, he may know that he is the desired one....

S. R. Driver and A. Neubauer, editors, The Fifty-third Chapter of Isaiah According to the Jewish Interpreters (2 volumes; New York: Ktav, 1969), pp. 19-20. The English translations used here are taken from volume 2. The original texts are in volume 1. Cf. Soloff, pp. 107-09.

Another statement from Yefeth ben Ali:

By the words "surely he hath carried our sicknesses," they mean that the pains and sickness which he fell into were merited by them, but that he bore them instead. . . . And here I think it necessary to pause for a few moments, in order to explain why God caused these sicknesses to attach themselves to the Messiah for the sake of Israel. . . . The nation deserved from God greater punishment than that which actually came upon them, but not being strong enough to bear it. . . God appoints his servant to carry their sins, and by doing so lighten their punishment in order that Israel might not be completely exterminated.

Driver and Neubauer, pp. 23 ff.; Soloff pp. 108-109.

Another statement from Yefeth ben Ali:

"And the Lord laid on him the iniquity of us all." The prophet does not by avon mean iniquity, but punishment for iniquity, as in the passage, "Be sure your sin will find you out" (Num. xxxii. 23).

Driver and Neubauer, p. 26; Soloff p. 109.

Mysteries of R. Shim'on ben Yohai (midrash, date uncertain)

And Armilaus will join battle with Messiah, the son of Ephraim, in the East gate . . .; and Messiah, the son of Ephraim, will die there, and Israel will mourn for him. And afterwards the Holy One will reveal to them Messiah, the son of David, whom Israel will desire to stone, saying, Thou speakest falsely; already is the Messiah slain, and there is non other Messiah to stand up (after him): and so they will despise him, as it is written, "Despised and forlorn of men;" but he will turn and hide himself from them, according to the words, "Like one hiding his face from us."

Driver and Neubauer, p. 32, citing the edition of Jellinek, Beth ha-Midrash (1855), part iii. p. 80.

Lekach Tov (11th c. midrash)

"And let his [Israel's] kingdom be exalted," in the days of the Messiah, of whom it is said, "Behold my servant shall prosper; he will be high and exalted, and lofty exceedingly."

Driver and Neubauer, p. 36.

Maimonides, Letter to Yemen (12th c.)

What is to be the manner of Messiah's advent, and where will be the place of his appearance? . . . And Isaiah speaks similarly of the time when he will appear, without his father or mother of family being known, He came up as a sucker before him, and as a root out of the dry earth, etc. But the unique phenomenon attending his manifestation is, that all the kings of the earth will be thrown into terror at the fame of him -- their kingdoms will be in consternation, and they themselves will be devising whether to oppose him with arms, or to adopt some different course, confessing, in fact, their inability to contend with him or ignore his presence, and so confounded at the wonders which they will see him work, that they will lay their hands upon their mouth; in the words of Isaiah, when describing the manner in which the kings will hearken to him, At him kings will shut their mouth; for that which had not been told them have they seen, and that which they had not heard they have perceived.

Driver and Neubauer vol 1: p. 322. Edition is Abraham S. Halkin, ed., Igeret Teman (NY: American Academy for Jewish Research, 1952). See Soloff pp. 127-128.

Zohar II, 212a (medieval)

There is in the Garden of Eden a palace named the Palace of the Sons of Sickness. This palace the Messiah enters, and He summons every pain and every chastisement of Israel. All of these come and rest upon Him. And had He not thus lightened them upon Himself, there had been no man able to bear Israel's chastisements for the transgressions of the law; as it is written, "Surely our sicknesses he has carried."

Cited in Driver and Neubauer, pp. 14-15 from section "va-yiqqahel". Translation from Frydland, Rachmiel, What the Rabbis Know About the Messiah (Cincinnati: Messianic Literature Outreach, 1991), p. 56, n. 27. Note that this section is not found in the Soncino edition which says that it was an interpolation.

Nachmanides (R. Moshe ben Nachman)(13th c.)

The right view respecting this Parashah is to suppose that by the phrase "my servant" the whole of Israel is meant. . . .As a different opinion, however, is adopted by the Midrash, which refers it to the Messiah, it is necessary for us to explain it in conformity with the view there maintained. The prophet says, The Messiah, the son of David of whom the text speaks, will never be conquered or perish by the hands of his enemies. And, in fact the text teaches this clearly. . . .

And by his stripes we were healed -- because the stripes by which he is vexed and distressed will heal us; God will pardon us for his righteousness, and we shall be healed both from our own transgressions and from the iniquities of our fathers.

Driver and Neubauer, pp. 78 ff.

Yalkut ii: 571 (13th c.)

Who art thou, O great mountain (Zech. iv. 7.) This refers to the King Messiah. And why does he call him "the great mountain?" Because he is greater than the patriarchs, as it is said, "My servant shall be high, and lifted up, and lofty exceedingly" -- he will be higher than Abraham, . . . lifted up above Moses, . . . loftier than the ministering angels.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 9.

The same passage is found in Midrash Tanhuma to Genesis (perhaps 9th c.), ed. John T. Townsend (Hoboken, NJ: Ktav, 1989), p. 166.

Yalkut ii. 620 (13th c.), in regard to Psalm 2:6

I.e., I have drawn him out of the chastisements. . . .The chastisements are divided into three parts: one for David and the fathers, one for our own generation, and one for the King Messiah; and this is that which is written, "He was wounded for our transgressions," etc.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 10.

R. Mosheh Kohen ibn Crispin (14th c.)

This Parashah the commentators agree in explaining of the Captivity of Israel, although the singular number is used in it throughout. . . .As there is no cause constraining us to do so, why should we here interpret the word collectively, and thereby distort the passage from its natural sense?. . . As then it seemed to me that the doors of the literal interpretation of the Parashah were shut in their face, and that "they wearied themselves to find the entrance," having forsaken the knowledge of our Teachers, and inclined after the "stubbornness of their own hearts," and of their own opinion, I am pleased to interpret it, in accordance with the teaching of our Rabbis, of the King Messiah, and will be careful, so far as I am able, to adhere to the literal sense.

Driver and Neubauer, pp. 99-100.

Another comment from R. Mosheh Kohen ibn Crispin

If his soul makes itself into a trespass-offering, implying that his soul will treat itself as guilty, and so receive punishment for our trespasses and transgressions.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 112.

R. Sh'lomoh Astruc (14th c.)

My servant shall prosper, or be truly intelligent, because by intelligence man is really man -- it is intelligence which makes a man what he is. And the prophet calls the King Messiah my servant, speaking as one who sent him. Or he may call the whole people my servant, as he says above my people (lii. 6): when he speaks of the people, the King Messiah is included in it; and when he speaks of the King Messiah, the people is comprehended with him. What he says then is, that my servant the King Messiah will prosper.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 129.

R. Elijah de Vidas (16th c.)

Since the Messiah bears our iniquities which produce the effect of His being bruised, it follows that whoso will not admit that the Messiah thus suffers for our iniquities, must endure and suffer for them himself.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 331.

Rabbi Moshe Alshekh (El-Sheikh) of Sefad (16th c.)

I may remark, then, that our Rabbis with one voice accept and affirm the opinion that the prophet is speaking of the King Messiah, and we ourselves also adhere to the same view.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 258.

Herz Homberg (18th-19th c.)

The fact is, that it refers to the King Messiah, who will come in the latter days, when it will be the Lord's good pleasure to redeem Israel from among the different nations of the earth.....Whatever he underwent was in consequence of their own transgression, the Lord having chosen him to be a trespass-offering, like the scape-goat which bore all the iniquities of the house of Israel.

Driver and Neubauer, p. 400-401.

The musaf (additional) service for the Day of Atonement, Philips machzor (20th c.)

Our righteous anointed is departed from us: horror hath seized us, and we have non to justify us. He hath borne the yoke of our iniquities, and our transgression, and is wounded because of our transgression. He beareth our sins on his shoulder, that he may find pardon for our iniquities. We shall be healed by his wound, at the time that the Eternal will create him (the Messiah) as a new creature. O bring him up from the circle of the earth. Raise him up from Seir, to assemble us the second time on Mount Lebanon, by the hand of Yinnon.

A. Th. Philips, Machzor Leyom Kippur / Prayer Book for the Day of Atonement with English Translation; Revised and Enlarged Edition (New York: Hebrew Publishing Company, 1931), p. 239. The passage can also be found in, e.g., the 1937 edition. Also, Driver and Neubauer, p. 399.

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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-18 15:58
I love that you quote Targum Yonaton on only one verse in the section! Isaiah 52:13. But did you look at the very next verse translated by Targum Yonaton? "“As the house of Israel looked to him during many days, because their countenance was darkened among the peoples, and their complexion (darkened) beyond the sons of men.”(on 52:14). Or on verse 10? "“But it is the Lord’s good pleasure to refine and cleanse the remnant of His people in order to purify their souls from sin; they shall see the kingdom of the messiah, they shall increase their sons and daughters, they shall prolong their days; and those who perform the Law of the Lord shall prosper in good pleasure.”(on 52:10). Of course not! Those verses would tell everyone reading this article that Targum Yonaton disagrees with you, plainly!
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0 # jon 2014-09-09 19:13
The only thing this webpage proves is that Jesus COULD be the Moshiach ben Yoseph, but obviously that doesn't mean that he could have been Moshiach ben David (read Ezek. ch37), nor does it mean he was divine (God is not a man- Num. 23:19). So you guys are really shooting yourselves in the foot.
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0 # Miebaka Emmanuel 2014-05-08 04:39
Why is yashua not rich, Isaiah 52, is song not for Jesus also 53 refers to Israel not yashua.
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0 # yohanna 2014-05-27 13:02
Jews say that the servant is Jewish people, but if we read verse 3, we find that the text says, He was despised and forsaken of men, a man of pains, we find here two words ..Men and man in the original Hebrew word men came (eshim) and the word man came (esh) The formula (im) is the plural form, which means that the first word is a plural of the second word. So this servant is a single person punished from a group of men, The same verse says we esteemed him not, the original Hebrew says (Hashbanhow), which means we counted him not ,Isaiah says that the Jewish people despised and did not count this servant, Look to verse 4 -5 Jews were the speakers, How the Gentiles were healed by Jews wounds?? And verse 9 says he had done no violence..., This description never applied to people component of all ages and both genders, Who carries the sins of others?, the book says that no one carries the guilt of the other Ezekiel Chapter 18, which carries the guilt of others just sacrifice of sins.
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-1 # jon 2014-08-27 17:56
You are completely misreading the Bible. Your statements are unfounded. The whole point of the chapter is that Israel was wounded for "our transgressions" - what does that mean? It means that the gentile kings oppressed the Jews for not accepting their gods, and through that sin - of oppressing the Jews - the Jews "bore their sins". See, if you don't read the whole Bible, then I see how you might think this passage is about Jesus. But since you take it out of context, and you don't read the very clear message throughout the Bible that Israel is God's servant, you are coming to an incorrect and idolitrous conclusion.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-13 21:05
Brother you have a missinterpretation no one carries the guilt of other like book has teached God visits to see the sins of generations like thier fathers but no one carries the sins of other, everybody dies with his sins read verse 3, 7 and 9 the text speaks of a man banished from men, (men not nations) so he is a one man vs a group of men and we did not esteem him (Who are we?) those intended in the text in verse 4 .. Israel .. so they renounced this slave, verse 7 and 9 do not apply to people never read Isaiah 52: 11 - 12 that Israel is sinner so how we describe an entire people that they had done no violence, neither was any deceit in the mouth, if that slave is the people, this is a lie how the people did not open thier mouths??!! verse 7. This servant is YOUR MESSIAH. who dead for sin see Denial 9: 25 - 26 that in the days of Azra and Artaxerxes king
69 weeks 483 years we reach 26 AC, when the anointed price cut off so Jesus is your MESSIAH.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-18 15:20
He said to me, "You are my SERVANT [not "servants" in the plural, SERVANT IN THE SINGULAR], Israel, in whom I will display my splendor." (ISAIAH 49:3). READ THE BIBLE AND YOU'LL KNOW THE TRUTH.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-19 20:49
You are wrong brother the verse is

וַיֹּאמֶר לִי, עַבְדִּי-אָתָּה--יִש ְׂרָאֵל, אֲשֶׁר-בְּךָ אֶתְפָּאָר.

And He said unto me: 'Thou art My servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified.'

And the word is

עַבְדִּי
Servant not servant
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-19 20:57
The servant is one who will save and return Israeli people this servant is Covenant for you so he is not the people he is YOUR SAVIOR MESSIAH the true Israel and he who the nation abhorreth the nation not nations so the nation here is Israel who rejected the MESSIAH
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:25
On what scriptual basis are you saying that it refers to the nation of Israel and not the gentile nations who rejected "him"? Isaiah 52:15 - "So he will sprinkle many NATIONS, and KINGS will shut their mouths because of him. For what THEY were not told, THEY will see, and what THEY have not heard, THEY will understand."(NIV). Look, I understand that you believe what you believe, but this passage in Isaiah is not supporting that belief. You are injecting your belief into Isaiah's words rather than letting his actual words affect you objectively.
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0 # yohanna 2014-10-01 06:03
Nation abhorreth not nations so which nation singular case means Jewish people and you said sprinkle many nations this applied to Jesus.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-13 21:39
Also the text did not tell us they carried their sins, but he carried our sins that means YOUR SINS ALSO and the PROPHET ISAIAH, if the servant is Israel they carried their sins, this servant is one person not nation and the evidence is had done no VIOLENCE and no DECEIT in HIS mouth, from the first chapter to the last in Isaiah book Israel sinner look chapter one and Isaiah chapters 57 to 59.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:27
Jesus did violence; he allowed spirits to enter a herd of pigs and had them all run to their deaths. He also told almost every person that he revealed himself to not to tell anyone that he had claimed to be Christ. So how does this help your argument? Also, Isaiah 52 says that the world will be astonished when this servant is revealed, and yet there are 2 billion Christinas in the world. How would Jesus returning to earth as the Messiah surprise anyone?
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0 # Eric Walter Camil, S 2014-09-29 16:19
When i think of violence. This verse comes to mind:

John 2: 13And the Jews' passover was at hand, and Jesus went up to Jerusalem, 14. And found in the temple those that sold oxen and sheep and doves, and the changers of money sitting: 15. And when he had made a scourge of small cords, he drove them all out of the temple, and the sheep, and the oxen; and poured out the changers' money, and overthrew the tables;
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+1 # yoganba 2014-10-01 07:17
When the Lord punished the people in captivity in the same case Jesus punished evil, because God is a jealous God
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+1 # yohanna 2014-10-01 05:57
When you offer a sacrifice of sin to God is this violence to the lamb?, when God punished Job is this violence for him?, the law says that pigs are prohibited from God and the problem is that there was a herd led by a man, and this man violates the law, and Jesus applied the law and saved the man, In the beginning Jesus did not declare himself even no one understand him as just a prophet, but is God who appeared in the flesh, see Isaiah 9: 5-6 is the Mighty God and Everlasting Father and Micah 5: 2, said that he who is goings forth from the Ancient times, and word ancient times referes to God also "going forth" meant that he exists before his birth which means eternity. Also all the nations believed in him as Isaiah 55: 3-5, and the word here was translated all times as sprinkle so how Jewish people sprinkled the nations? Jesus did it.
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0 # yohanna 2014-10-01 07:24
Read also Psalm 110: 1, we find Jehovah speak with Adonai Adonai is in the General Description in this Psalm is not limited in any time that he exists at all times look about Psalm 110: 3-4 , so Adonai is a Divinity Lord.
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0 # M. 2013-11-28 02:55
In Isaiah 49:3 "Thou Are My Servant, Israel".
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+1 # tariq 2013-12-14 13:40
My brother: Jacob is Israel's first and the Messiah is Israel's recent and real, in Isaiah 48: 8 invited sinner from the abdomen and Isaiah 48: 18 and Isaiah 48: 22 we find the people of Israel guilty here does not speak for Israel as a nation but here is speaking about servant whom was invited from the abdomen to save the people OF ISRAEL and returned them Isaiah 49: 5 - 6 Here talking about the savior of Israel and the salvation of the people is not in itself, but here is intended Messiah, and he is a covenant for the people, The covenant was FOR the people through the blood, PEOPLE IN ITSELF was not the covenant, Jesus by his blood was a covenant for the people, and he is a light to the Gentiles look about Isaiah 55: 3 - 5, Result: people did not achieve the demands of God that the Messiah is Israel that achieves the demands of God and save Israel and be the covenant of the people, In Isaiah 49: 7 we find to him whom the nation abhorreth (the Jewish people)- not nations
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0 # jon 2014-09-09 19:09
This is incorrect. According to the Hebrew Bible, this covenant doesn't exist. The only way we would ever know about it is through the New Testament. Yet the Hebrew Bible was finalized 500 years before Jesus was even born. So how were any people "saved" between the time the Hebrew Bible was finalized and Jesus lived? Additionally, God says plainly in the Bible, "I have not spoken in secret, from somewhere in a land of darkness; I have not said to Jacob's descendants, 'Seek me in vain.' I, the LORD, speak the truth; I declare what is right" (Isaiah 45:19). So do you mean to tell me that having never mentioned an annointed king that would die on a cross and whose blood is completely necessary for salvation, the Jews are expected to believe in it? Was it a secret? NO, BECAUSE THE BIBLE SAYS GOD SPEAKS PLAINLY.
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+1 # tariq 2014-09-13 23:10
Please do not lie Jon the covenant is exists in the text in Hebrew the covenant is for people but not them so he is not the people but the savior Messiah
Your prophets told you about the Messiah and many Jews believe that Messiah will carry sins look about your historical interpretations, and the sacrifices were symbols for Jesus the savior, Isaac was a symbol to Messiah because of this event Jehovah told Abraham for the first time about his coming seed David told us about Messiah in Psalms 2 , Psalms 22: 13 - 18, Isaiah 9: 6 Wonderful Counselor Mighty GOD Eternal Father Prince of Peace, the Messiah will be GOD Denial told us that he will be cut off, Isaiah told us that he will be the covenant Isaiah 55: 3 - 5, can you explain to me the meaning of the coming of SHILOH in Genesis 49: 10 The sceptre was departed from Judah and between his feet, after Jesus comes read the history so where is SHILOH
SHILOH IS JESUS king for EVER A Spiritual king because he is GOD
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-19 03:14
Tell me, did you read the original Hebrew? Because every case you just cited has been mistranslated by Christian versions for the last 1500 years. Daniel speaks of TWO annointed ones, the first a prince and the second a regular man. Shiloh represents the kingship, but not that the kingship will always be filled, just that Judah is the only tribe that can have a king. If you are right that the Kingship would never depart, how can you explain "For the children of Israel shall abide many days without a king, and without a prince, and without a sacrifice" (Hosea 3:4). Isaiah 9 is referring to Hezekiah, and you can see the fulfillment in the book of Kings. Psalm 22 does not say he was pierced, it says "kaari" which means "like a lion"; the KJV correctly translates this word in Isaiah 38, but chooses to change the meaning for the "crusifiction psalm" to further the doctrine. Moral: read the hebrew.
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0 # tariq 2014-09-19 21:31
You are completely wrong Denial started in the days of Azra and if you study the period you will reach after Jesus days not before 69 weeks - 483 years
Also kaari will make the text incomplete because the man here described himself as a worm and I am poured out like water ...and my strength is dried up like a potsherd.. so he is not a lion the Jews added "they are at" not mentioned in the text to give the meaning to the text see JPS 1917 translation the true is that the word is a verb to see what happened to his hands and feet which is caaru with VAV not YOD this word must be a verb dug
Verse Hosea 3: 4
This is what happened in captivity They were without a king, and without Tomple And without ephod = clothes of the high priest
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0 # tariq 2014-09-20 00:50
According to Hosea 3: 4 you can read Hosea Chapter 8 and 10 to explain the meaning, after this you will return, and seek the LORD your God, and David your king ( Messiah) see you must return to to your GAD and MESSIAH
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0 # tariq 2014-09-19 23:41
Shiloh in Genesis 49: 10 is son of David son of Judah and the scepter will not be departed from Judah until Shiloh must come, but the scepter was departed in the days of Roman Empire, where is Shiloh, Shiloh is Jesus
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0 # tariq 2014-09-20 08:46
For more information about the coming of Shiloh see

www.nuggetnetreview.com/m-departing-scepter.htm
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+1 # tariq 2013-12-14 14:32
He told me you are my servant, Israel, in whom I will be glorified." Glory to Him, the Lord Jesus is the "true Israel" who was able to glorify God. the Lord wants to be glorified in the people of Israel, but they did not glorify, his generosity, which were waiting for him to make the grapes he made a bad grapes Isaiah 5: 1 - 2, but the Lord Jesus said, "I am the true vine"John 15: 1, people of Israel will stay mistaken until the Redeemer will come to Zion, God rebukes the people for their sins from chapters 57 to 59 so they do not glorify God, and we see in Isaiah 59: 21 "this is my covenant with them" there is a covenant for them, the people are not the covenant by themselves.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-19 03:15
no one said the people were the covenant. but God promised Israel that it would never stop being His people. So if the Old Testament is the word of God, then you can't possibly be right! It would go against the Word!
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0 # tariq 2014-09-19 22:07
You answered your self you said no one said people were the covenant and this is true but the text told us that the servant is a covenant for the people so this servant in this text not the people he is the Messiah your savior
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:31
Can you give me a clear verse that teaches this? A person cannot be a "covenant". A "brit" in hebrew denotes an agreement between 2 parties, a person is not an agreement. What verse states that the eventual messiah will be a "covenant"?
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0 # tariq 2014-10-01 09:07
The text in Hebrew says

וְאֶתֶּנְךָ לִבְרִית עָם

This does not mean that the Lord give him a covenant FROM people but for a covenant of people which means that the Lord give him as a covenant of people or also means that the Lord give him a people for a covenant in the two cases this servant is not the people.
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0 # tariq 2014-09-19 22:10
Also did you mean the people is covenant for the people???!!!
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:32
no, I meant that God has a covenant WITH the people. people are not covenants! covenants are agreements between 2 parties, such as the covenant between Abraham and Abimelech, or between God and Noah.
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0 # tariq 2014-10-01 06:33
He said I GIVE YOU a Covenant for the people , he is a covenant for the Jewish people who is he?
Jesus in his body and blood was a new covenant for you, look about Moses the covenant was in blood and the Messiah will be a covenant look to Isaiah 55: 3-5.
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0 # Eric W Camil Sr 2013-09-10 18:36
Any thoughts on responding to the belief that from Isaiah 53:10 the Messiah is to literally have His own children and live a long life. Note I did say literally.

Thanks & blessings

Eric
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+1 # tariq 2013-09-24 20:35
Verse 10: Jews try to say that the servant has offspring, and Christ did not have offspring and the answer is simply that the Hebrew text says זרע (ZERA) which means seed and not זרעו (ZERAO) which means his seed, meaning here is to see the seed of the believer people in him and not his physical seed, and in Christ we are children of God a spiritual seed, see as stated in Psalm 22: 30 - 31, where the word seed it came in the original Hebrew here זרע, and here refers to the believer people of God .

God bless you
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0 # Eric Walter Camil, S 2013-09-25 21:01
Thank you for your research this is very interesting.I checked the definitions of the Hebrew word זרע ZERA and זרעו ZERAO. Below are the definitions. I was unable to find the Hebrew word זרעו Zerao used in scripture. The Bible uses the word ZERA 56 times in 54 verses. I think it is clear that sometimes the word ZERA is used to identify someone’s’ children. See a verse below though there are many. Zera: seed; kernel sperm ,semen, posterity, offspring, children, to sow, seed; scatter, disperse be sown, seeded; scattered, dispersed, to inseminate, fertilize; produce seed, be inseminated, fertilized. Zerao זרעו seed; kernel sperm, semen. Gen 12:7 And the LORD appeared unto Abram, and said, Unto thy seed will I give this land: and there builded he an altar unto the LORD, who appeared unto him. I was interested, where in scripture, or other places you are finding the word זרעו ZERAO from, why you believe it is being used in place of ZERA which is the word I find?
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0 # tariq 2013-09-26 14:08
My brother Eric thank you again, the word זרע ZARA has a general meaning, what does it mean? or to whom the word return? Notice Psalm 22: 30 - 31, and where is the reference tool his in the word זרע

the word זרעו see ו which means his and זרע which means seed, see it in the bible:-

http://www.google.com/cse?cx=003922636974222575695%3A8f0kdrh08aq&ie=windows-1255&q=his+seed&hq=inurl%3A%2Fp%2Fpt%2F&sa=+Search+#gsc.tab=0&gsc.q=%D7%96%D6%B7%D7%A8%D6%B0%D7%A2%D7%95%D6%B9

God bless you again
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0 # tariq 2013-09-26 14:27
Psalm 22: 30

in Hebrew

זֶרַע יַעַבְדֶנּוּ; יְסֻפַּר לַאדֹנָי לַדּוֹר.

the translation by JPS 1917

A seed shall serve him; it shall be told of the Lord unto the next generation.

see זֶרַע means A seed not his seed
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0 # tariq 2013-09-26 14:59
And finally my brother I'll show you the meaning of seed in the book, Jeremiah 33: 26, the verse repeated the word 3 times:-

In Hebrew

גַּם-זֶרַע יַעֲקוֹב וְדָוִד עַבְדִּי אֶמְאַס, מִקַּחַת מִזַּרְעוֹ מֹשְׁלִים, אֶל-זֶרַע אַבְרָהָם, יִשְׂחָק וְיַעֲקֹב: כִּי-אשוב (אָשִׁיב) אֶת-שְׁבוּתָם, וְרִחַמְתִּים.

Translation JPS 1917:-

then will I also cast away the seed of Jacob, and of David My servant, so that I will not take of his seed to be rulers over the seed of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob; for I will cause their captivity to return, and will have compassion on them

seed זֶרַע
of his seed מִזַּרְעוֹ

The word in the bible If you check has no reference tool

http://www.google.com/cse?cx=003922636974222575695%3A8f0kdrh08aq&ie=windows-1255&q=%E6%C6%F8%C7%F2+&hq=inurl%3A%2Fp%2Fpt%2F&sa=+Search+#gsc.tab=0&gsc.q=%D7%96%D6%B6%D7%A8%D6%B7%D7%A2&gsc.page=1
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0 # Eric Walter Camil, S 2013-09-26 16:08
Traiq,

Shalom, and thank you for help & research. The word Zera is the same one used throughout scripture. H2233 זרע zera‛ From H2232; seed; figuratively fruit, plant, sowing time, posterity: - X carnally, child, fruitful, seed (-time), sowing-time. Which is from H2232 זרע zâra‛ A primitive root; to sow; figuratively to disseminate, plant, fructify: - bear, conceive seed, set with, sow (-er), yield. It is clear they both can refer to a person’s off spring. Yes there is scripture which also includes the word HIS before using the word Zera. Genesis 1:11 you list uses ZARA, Genesis 7:3, 38:8,38:9 Psalm 22:24, 22:31 uses Zera. The JPS from 2009 translate Isaiah 53:10 as “His Seed” Another version of the JPS I have uses “Offspring”

Blessings

Eric
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0 # Eric Walter Camil, S 2013-09-26 16:08
Tariq,

So to clarify, I think you are saying that Isaiah 53:10 does not say “HIS” seed so it does not mean he will have his own literal children? Because there is scripture where Zera is used where the word HIS is and is not used to refer to children that I am not sure I have the same conclusion as you. Also I believe that Jesus’ death reconciled me to God. I am God’s child not Jesus’.

Blessings
Eric
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0 # tariq 2013-09-26 17:24
[quote name="Eric Walter Camil, S"]Tariq,

I am God’s child not Jesus

My brother the Gospel said:-

John 1: 12 "But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name".

I'm a son of God by Jesus

Jesus will see the seed of the believer people in him and not his physical seed .... so they are the sons of God.

God bless you
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+2 # Eric Walter Camil, S 2013-09-26 17:37
Brother,
Let’s remember that we are the sons & daughters of Adam, and are born into sin & iniquity. Being born again is when our Spirit is regenerated by our faith in Yeshua. That is a spiritual rebirth to us spiritually. It takes place when the Holy Spirit enters into us.
Blessings
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:37
The old testament does not support the notion of original sin. Read the account of Cain and Abel: "Then the Lord said to Cain, “Why are you angry? Why is your face downcast? 7 If you do what is right, will you not be accepted? But if you do not do what is right, sin is crouching at your door; it desires to have you, but you must rule over it.”(Gen. 4:6). If we have original sin, then why does God say that Cain can rule over sin? If we need the blood of Jesus to get out of sin, then how could Cain rule sin without his blood?
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+4 # yohanna 2013-08-17 17:51
Verse 8: Nega lamo, Nega: stroke - Adjective, Lamo: to them ,for them , It came like this in the Masoretic text which between 6 century – 10 century AD, And we can understand the text that the servant was cut off from the land of the living because of the transgressions of the people of Isaiah a stroke for them, Which means that the servant is a stroke for Isaiah's people, But if we read the old texts Qumran and Septuagint we find that the word nega was noga which means (he was stricken), Lamo came in Qumran as (lamo) which means for them. So Qumran says he was stricken for them, Lamo came in Septuagint as (lamot) which means to death, So Septuagint says he was stricken to death.
Verse 9: Bemotao: his deaths, The same problem that the text came like this in Masoretic text which between 6 century – 10 century AD as plural form, But if we read the old texts Qumran and Septuagint we find it bemoto which means his death singular form.
Text origins don't help what Jews says.
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0 # jon 2014-08-27 17:51
YOUR OBJECTION IS RIDICULOUS. There are NO VOWELS IN THE DEAD SEA SCROLLS. The Masoretic text is the original text with vowels and cantellation marks in it. The Dead Sea Scrolls have the text EXACTLY as they are in the Masoretic text for Isaiah 53. You literally made this up. Go to the Israel Museum website and view this section of Isaiah yourself.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-13 23:16
See qum 44 in google and youwill see noga lamo and in Septuagint you will see a translation of noga lamot
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+3 # yohanna 2013-07-14 16:39
Jews say that the servant is Jewish people, but if we read verse 3, we find that the text says, He was despised and forsaken of men, a man of pains, we find here two words ..Men and man in the original Hebrew word men came (eshim) and the word man came (esh) The formula (im) is the plural form, which means that the first word is a plural of the second word. So this servant is a single person punished from a group of men, The same verse says we esteem him not, the original Hebrew says (Hashbanhow), which means we count him not ,Isaiah says that the Jewish people despised and did not count this servant, so how this servant is the Jewish people?, And verse 9 says he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth, and this description never does not apply to people component of all ages and both genders,This servant carries the sins of others, the book says that no one carries the guilt of the other Ezekiel Chapter 18, which carries the guilt of others only a sin offering.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-08-27 11:24
This is unfouned. The nation of Israel is often referred to in the singular throughout the Bible. I am happy to provide as many references as it would take to dispell this incorrect idea.
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+3 # yohanna 2013-07-14 16:35
Isaiah since he said that the arm of the Lord will appear in chapters 51 and 52, Isaiah 53: 1 is achieving for coming this arm, Isaiah 51: 4-5 is intended here coming King Messiah as the judge arm of the peoples, eternal salvation and righteousness, the isles waiting for him, Isaiah 51: 9 - 11: arm will hold a miracles as Moses see Deuteronomy 18: 15-18, Deuteronomy 34: 10 - 12, the prophet (Messiah) alone who would resemble Moses in miracles, Isaiah 51: 11 moved literally from Isaiah 35: 10, and this indicates to the same idea, Isaiah 35 speaks of the miracles of Jesus the way (railroad), Isaiah 52 begins to talk about how to return the people of Babylon, but from Isaiah 52: 7 - 10 starts prophet talking about another time, a time of good news which means Gospel, then they see God eye to eye as face-to-face, which means the incarnation of God, Isaiah 52: 10, came in Psalm 98: 1 - 2 which occurs when the Nations glorify God and this is when the Messiah comes see Isaiah 55: 3 - 5.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-08-27 11:26
This is just plain wrong. By the Red Sea, the children of Israel "saw the GREAT ARM that God made in Egypt"; no serious Christian scholar says that the Hand/Arm of God always refers to Jesus.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-13 23:20
But you forget that the prophet that will look like mouses is Messiah so he a indicated to Coming Arm Messiah
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+1 # yohanna 2014-09-14 14:12
He said awake awake Arm of the lord to do miracles as Moses time, the book told us that only a one prophet will look like Moses Deuteronomy 18: 15-18, Deuteronomy 34:10-12, so he indicated about Messiah, brother also Isaiah 51: 11 moved as it was in Isaiah 35: 10 that means the same idea which is the time the way (Highway) who God will come and will make a miracles see Isaiah 35: 4-5 ( miracles of JESUS who is GOD IN FLESH.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:41
That's just not true. The verse is referring to the fact that Moses wasn't the only prophet. If you are correct, then there should have only been one other prophet in Jesus. But there were many prophets in Israel. Also, where in the New Testament does it say that Jesus spoke to God "face to face" or "like a man speaks to his friend"? NO WHERE.
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+2 # Benard 2013-04-07 18:49
Seeing the man described in Isaiah 53 as being symbolic of Israel is problematic: IF the man is Israel, then you are forced to assume that the speaker describing him are the gentile nations/kings.

-As it has been agreed, this section starts in Isaiah 52:13, where it is says in verse 15

"...so now he will startle many NATIONS ;because of him, KINGS will be speechless.For THEY will see what THEY had not been told, they will ponder things they had never heard.” (Complete Jewish Bible, emphases mine)

Notice how it is talking about the gentile nations/kings, and refers to them as "they", therefore the speaker can't be the gentile nations and must be from Israel.

This is just one reason why Israel doesn't fit using the structure of the text. I have more, but it wouldn't fit this post. This part of Isaiah seems to be about someone else.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-08-27 11:30
I will give you another example to prove that you are wrong. "Then sang Moses and the children of Israel this song unto the LORD, and spoke, saying: I will sing unto the LORD, for He is highly exalted; the horse and his rider hath He thrown into the sea." You see what happened there? The verse started talking in third person, but shifts and then speaks about Moses AND the Children of Israel in the SINGULAR. There are no quotation marks in the Bible. The original texts don't even have the vowels written in. Plural / Singular shifts happen all the time, and they are sometimes hard to pick out without really studying the text. Your argument is unfounded and highly misleading.
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+1 # yohanna 2012-11-30 13:02
What’s the meaning of "Arm of the lord" in Isaiah 53: 1, If we read the first verse of chapter 53 of Isaiah, what is the meaning of the arm of the Lord here, the meaning of the arm of the Lord is usually: God save the people of Israel, and it is made sometimes by a commander who sends from God like Moses. If we go back to chapters 52 and 51 we find that Isaiah said that the arm of the Lord will appear 3 times and all he meant Messiah, in Chapter 51: 4-5, certainly this text speaks of the commander as the light for people with righteousness and salvation, and will judge the peoples (the king messiah) and the isles waiting arm, and this is the Messiah (The arm who peoples and isles wait).
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-08-27 11:35
"Arm of the Lord" has to do with God's physical salvation of the Jewish people, just READ ISAIA: “Listen to me, my people; hear me, my nation: Instruction will go out from me; my justice will become a light to the nations. My righteousness draws near speedily, My salvation is on the way, and my arm will bring justice to the nations. The islands will look to me and wait in hope for my arm." (Isaiah 51:4-5) Messiah isn't even mentioned in that chapter. Additionally, not all Christian scholars agree with you that Isaiah 53 is speaking about an individual suffering servant. THE NEW ENGLISH BIBLE OXFORD STUDY EDITION
"52.13-53.12: Fourth servant song. The suffering servant. See 42.1-4 n. Israel, the servant of God, has
suffered as а humiliated individual. However, the servant endured without complaint because it was vicarious
suffering (suffering for others). 13-15: Nations and kings will be surprised to see the servant exalted."
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-16 16:00
Not necessarily to find the word "Messiah" in the text to say that the text speaks about him, for example the word Messiah is not mentioned in Micah when he said that he will be born in Bethlehem, he said only that he would be king, who governs, and in Isaiah 51: 4-5 will be yours Instruction and the word Instruction that Jehovah offers to you is without "THE" and this is evidence that is a new Instruction not the Mosaic Instruction, and text said that righteousness and salvation are nearby and arm of the Lord will govern and here is the Messianic time, and this salvation is not a simple salvation of a special event, but its an eternal salvation and righteousness meaning that is the messianc salvation see Isaiah 51: 6 and Isaiah 51: 8.
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0 # yohanna 2014-09-16 16:44
Isaiah 42: 1-4 is not about Israel but it is about Messiah, multiple descriptions in the text show you that the servant here is not people but a one man:-
Isaiah 42 : 2-3 these descriptions never applied for a people as a whole put its for a Peaceful man
Another description is that he is a COVENANT FOR THE PEOPLE Isaiah 42: 6 and the People in themselves are not the Covenant but the Covenant was provided to them by BLOOD, and if you see the description in Isaiah 42: 7 and if you compare it with Isaiah 61: 1-4 you will know that this servant is Messiah, The Messiah is your new Covenant see Isaiah 55: 3-5.
In Isaiah 42: 18-25 Israel is another servant who is blind and the text here is clear that speaks of a group not like the first of the Chapter as i said before.
GOD BLESS YOU
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0 # Ben 2012-10-21 21:10
The Zohar passage IS in the Soncino
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+1 # Ed 2012-04-09 12:41
I felt compelled over the passover to read Isaiah 53 but to get a true perspective on the text I started reading from chapter 40. I discovered several things. 1st all the previous chapters leading up to chapter 53 were speaking of Israel. and after continuing beyond chapter 53 in continues to speak of Israel so you have to ask why would the context of the subject change. Also consider if you were to read it without chapters it would be difficult to say the subject matter has changed. 2nd a messiah and a savior are clearly identified from chapter 40 on. Cyrus as a messiah a non Jew who did not know God and a savior mentioned several times. BTW the savior name is God. Only I can forgive sin. Last there is a plan in Isaiah for the non jew please read chapter 56. The requirement to come to God is clear read especially Isaiah 56:6-8. It's easy to cherry pick the bible to prove a point but reading everything in it's context gives a clear picture of the subject matter.
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+3 # Rich Robinson 2012-09-21 17:27
Ed, great to read the whole context. Start even earlier. Isaiah 7-11 (Book of Immanuel) speaks of a coming deliverer who in some way is identified with God. The Servant passages Isa. 40 onwards speak of Israel but "narrow down" to a particular person (Servant) in Israel who will help the nation become the Servant it's supposed to be. And yes, there is a plan for non-Jews which originates in Genesis 12:1-3. I believe the entire context of Isaiah shows this isn't cherry picking but the organic message of the entire book.
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-08-27 11:39
That just isn't true! It doesn't narrow down at all! "Your Maker is your husband—the Lord Almighty is his name—
the Holy One of Israel is your Redeemer; he is called the God of all the earth." (Isaiah 54:5). Isaiah tells us clearly in v5 that this chapter is about the peple Israel again. And isn't interesting that it uses the metaphore of a SINGULAR barren woman? Makes you wonder, has Isaiah used singular imagry IN THE CHAPTER RIGHT BEFORE to refer to Israel?
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+8 # Therese 2011-06-26 10:53
The Jewish Nation believes Jesus Christ is not the Messiah because he didn't bring Peace to the Nation of Israel as foretold in the scriptures. The Jewish Nation is wrong. The Jewish Nation looks for a Messiah to bring temporal or physical peace. The Jewish Nation, as the Covenant People of God, clings to the Physical Laws of Moses and traditions, rather than faith in God. This led to the Jewish nation’s downfall, captivity, scattering worldwide, and Jerusalem’s conquest. As God's Covenant People, the Jewish Nation could not be reconciled into God's presence because of Adam and Eve’s sin. Jesus Christ through his death, took the sins of the world, overcame death's spiritual and physical separation from God; and the original sin of Adam and Eve. As a perfect lamb led to slaughter, as scripturally foretold, Jesus Christ reconciled the Jewish nation and the World back into God's presence. Jesus Christ, as Messiah, brought spiritual peace and reconciliation between God and his people.
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-2 # Andi 2012-09-17 19:21
Not only did Israel look for a Messiah to bring peace to the nation of Israel, so did the disciples who followed him. Jesus sweat blood in the garden of Gethsemane not only because of what was ahead of him but because he knew the disciples didn't get it. Also, Judas betrayal wasn't because he wanted Jesus to die, he literally believed that he would throw Jesus' hand, that Jesus would reign on a physical throne. Christ was the innocent lamb who died so that we could have a relationship with him. He did it for all, Jew, and Gentile alike!
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0 # Tony 2012-10-11 23:09
but these guys are lying, Rashi did not invent Isaisah 53+Israel, even in 248 ad Origen adimtted that jews believed Isaiah 53_Israel
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:49
It wasn't non-belief in a messiah that brought Israel's downfall, it was non-adherence to the Law of Moses! "After you have had children and grandchildren and have lived in the land a long time—if you then become corrupt and make any kind of idol, doing evil in the eyes of the Lord your God and arousing his anger, I call the heavens and the earth as witnesses against you this day that you will quickly perish from the land that you are crossing the Jordan to possess. You will not live there long but will certainly be destroyed. The Lord will SCATTER you among the peoples, and only a few of you will survive among the nations to which the Lord will drive you." (Deut. 4:25-27). Show me a verse in the Old Testament that says that messiah has to be BELIEVED IN. There is no such verse, because it would be like saying, "I believe Barak Obama is president". It will be a fact of life, there is no need for faith.
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0 # Crispin 2007-03-13 15:00
Re:Your manipulation of Isaiah 53 Christianity and Messianics will invent, twist and turn anything to produce what they need to sustain the hoax Christianity was build on. It is really sad that you have so little substance that you need to rape Hebrew Scriptures and Writings. Rape exist in many shapes and forms. Shame on you all.
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+11 # Jon 2012-09-17 13:07
So all these Jewish authorities have been raping their own Scriptures for hundreds of years? And the Jews who wrote the New Testament did the same thing? And the Jews in the days of Jesus of Nazareth, who were expecting the Messiah on the basis of Daniel 9, did the same thing?

Why do you hate Jews (and Gentiles) who accept the Word of God? Why do you verbally abuse us? Why do you maliciously libel us? Why do you hate us? Why do you hate, hate, hate, hate when faced with clear evidence that contradicts your views?

The Lord Jesus loves you. The Lord Jesus died for you. The Lord Jesus rose from the dead and is coming again. His love and wrath are unstoppable.

May God grant you repentance and faith in the Lord Jesus Christ, your Messiah and the King of all kings.
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0 # Tony 2012-10-11 23:15
because all these quotes are just HISOTRICAL REVISIONISMS
and why would a rabbi in the 16th century still claim Isaiah 53=Jesus? It makes no sense !
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+2 # Cory Moesta 2013-03-28 18:45
Who said anything about that rabbi claiming it was Jesus. The point is that the rabbi claimed the passage was referring to the Messiah as opposed to the Jewish teaching that it's about the nation of Israel. I think you need to look up the definition of "historical revision".
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0 # Actually_A_Jew 2014-09-28 02:51
He said it was refering to the Messiah, son of Joseph, who is a different person than Messiah son of David. Are you saying that Jesus is the suffering Messiah son of Joseph? Because if so he can't be the King of Israel - the king comes from David and Solomon.
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+2 # Vladimir Bivens 2007-02-17 17:07
This 53rd chapter of Isaiah is so plain I think that even a five year old child could see it. What about the 61st chapter of Isa,?
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